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Did Jesus quote a non-existent verse in John 7:38?

So this was asked in Quora : My response below: The verse is NOT non-existent. The thing is the reference to a river flowing out occurs in a few places in the Old Testament. Thus when Jesus says "As the Scripture has said ..." He is referring to a theme that occurs repeatedly in the Old Testament. It is important to understand what "the rivers flowing out" imply in the Old Testament. They always refer to the  dwelling place of God . These occurs in a few places. As early as the Book of Genesis, we see this Scripture in Genesis 2:10 "A  river flowed out of Eden  to water the garden, and there it divided and became four rivers." (Genesis 2:10, ESV) Therefore, the source of the river = Eden. And Eden is none other than the very dwelling place of God. Biblical theology helps us understand Eden as a "type" of temple. Where else do we see this? We see this again in Ezekiel 47. In Ezekiel 47, in Ezekiel's vision of a New Temple, he pi...

The Two Meals in Genesis

I have been reading Bruce K. Waltke's Genesis Commentary for the church's Christian Education Class. Two classes on Genesis were completed by God's grace despite what I felt was inadequate preparation. I decided to still plough through Genesis anyway. Waltke has been very helpful in exposing the various juxtapositions of the narrators between characters and events in Genesis. In the class I demonstrated the theme of the "seeing of nakedness" between in Genesis 3 involving Adam and Eve and again in Genesis 9 involving Noah and Ham. Clearly the parallels aim to show the continuation of the seed of the woman to be with Shem over Ham. Another helpful one is to observe the juxtaposition of the characters Abraham and Lot. There is so much to be said here but one illuminating one is the comparison of the "meals" offered by Abraham versus Lot. These chapters are side by side Genesis 18 and Genesis 19. Both chapters begin with the LORD appearing versus an...

Anselm's Ontological Argument for God

1. The definition of the word   God  is “that than which nothing greater can be conceived.”  2. God exists in the understanding, since we understand the word with that definition.  3. To exist in reality and in the understanding is greater than to exist in the understanding alone.  4. Therefore, God must exist in reality.

Addressing Sako Gekchyan's answer for the Quora Question: "Historically, how and why did Jesus of Nazareth come to be thought of as God?"

https://www.quora.com/Historically-how-and-why-did-Jesus-of-Nazareth-come-to-be-thought-of-as-God/answer/Sako-Gekchyan Sako Gekchyan: Ok this is going to be long so bear with me because it's not an easy answer... Perhaps I can offer an explanation outside of a Trinitarian bias. Contrary to what many Christians believe, The early followers of Jesus were devout Jews who followed all the commandments. The only one who seems to have opposed the continued following of the law was the apostle Paul who never even met Jesus in person to begin with. Considering the fact that the early disciples were Jews, The idea that their master was God in the flesh would've been considered both blasphemy and idolatry. I'm going to disagree with a claim made by a previous commentor, while the book known as the Didache is believed by most scholars to have been influenced by the apostles, it is completely devoid of any mention of Jesus as God. The only titles it seems to bestow upon...

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